[/SIZE]I reiterate, the Quran does not mention Blasphemy. Just like how you usually tell me Jinnah did not mention "Secularism". And the Quran is a Law book, right? Law books are taken word for word. They need to be meticulous and clear in their presentation. That is what a Law book is all about. And this woman did not wage War for the fact that she is incapable of it. Are you familiar with And statements? In Law, an "AND" is binding. If I say Modern.Fakir AND Laloo Prasad were seen smooching in Delhi, that means that BOTH were seen smooching. If I said, Modern.fakir OR Laloo Prasad were seen smooching in Delhi that would mean either or both. The Quranic Ayah you specified has an AND in the sentence. Wage War AND strive towards mischief "throughout" the land. Not just in a house or mosque, but THROUGHOUT the land. And where does Mischief = Blasphemy?
This does not answer my question. When the Quran specifically stipulated to "Perish this man's hands AND Perish Him". Why wasn't this sentence carried out? The death of Abu Lahab was not the result of someone carrying out the Quranic decree, it was purely a defensive and reactionary event at the hands of Lubaba. Had Abu Lahab not been beating down on Abu Rafi, you think Lubaba would've dropped sharpening her arrows and dealt the blow? Hell no. This begs an important question, Just why wasn't the Quranic injunction carried out? Interesting. Thanks for bringing this up. ;)