Milk Shaykh
Banned
Re: ALLAH has permitted Muslim Male to have Women as their londi Orya Maqbool
firstly i would like to say that the last time i watched a single bollowood movie was back in 2010. secondly, after having a look through in my tafsir books to corroborate your statement, i would like to apologize and say that you were right(partially). the verse does mainly talked about slaver owners/guardians who have slaves and slave girls in their possession and have means to get them married to another slave or slave girl. but, that being said that tafsir also points out that it does not specifically only talk about guardians marrying them off to others slaves. it also refer to marrying the slave girl for themselves if: A. they(owner) are not married themselves, B. they are afraid of falling in sin. and C. if their intention is pure. but again i apologize for only posting one narrative of the Ayyah.
i think you should also read this: http://islamqa.org/hanafi/askimam/28394
i think most laymen can not understand the logic behind shariah, so they deny these laws existence until it is right in front of them. this leads to them either saying that they don't believe in that, or they try to justify it. both of these eventually leads to them becoming agnostics because their parents didn't think that their child needed islamic teaching and were more concerned with angrasi medium education.
but i would like to partially edit , yet still maintain, my previous stance that having any form of sexual relation with a slave, for whom you have not been given the "right to have sex" from the Amir-ul-Mumineen is considered zina. and even after that if the slave girl refuses to have sexual relation with you and you force her, that is considered rape in islam. i can give numerous Muhadith where the Nabi of Allah commands us to not harm our slaves, and because anything done forcefully is considered harming, forcing your slave girl to have sex with you even after the permission of the amir is still rape. Allahu A'alim
Oh my god, such hypocrisy on this forum today.
24:32 is not an instruction that the slave owner must marry his slaves to be intimate with them. It is saying something else.
It says that is the slave owner has some slaves, and he knows people who are unmarried, then he can allow the marriage of his good slaves to those unmarried people.
Nowhere does the ayat put a condition that the slaveowner must marry his slave before being intimate with them.
Come one man, at least lets not twist the words of Quran Majeed just because you want to appease West and the Bollywood. Stick to the wording.
firstly i would like to say that the last time i watched a single bollowood movie was back in 2010. secondly, after having a look through in my tafsir books to corroborate your statement, i would like to apologize and say that you were right(partially). the verse does mainly talked about slaver owners/guardians who have slaves and slave girls in their possession and have means to get them married to another slave or slave girl. but, that being said that tafsir also points out that it does not specifically only talk about guardians marrying them off to others slaves. it also refer to marrying the slave girl for themselves if: A. they(owner) are not married themselves, B. they are afraid of falling in sin. and C. if their intention is pure. but again i apologize for only posting one narrative of the Ayyah.
i think you should also read this: http://islamqa.org/hanafi/askimam/28394
i think most laymen can not understand the logic behind shariah, so they deny these laws existence until it is right in front of them. this leads to them either saying that they don't believe in that, or they try to justify it. both of these eventually leads to them becoming agnostics because their parents didn't think that their child needed islamic teaching and were more concerned with angrasi medium education.
but i would like to partially edit , yet still maintain, my previous stance that having any form of sexual relation with a slave, for whom you have not been given the "right to have sex" from the Amir-ul-Mumineen is considered zina. and even after that if the slave girl refuses to have sexual relation with you and you force her, that is considered rape in islam. i can give numerous Muhadith where the Nabi of Allah commands us to not harm our slaves, and because anything done forcefully is considered harming, forcing your slave girl to have sex with you even after the permission of the amir is still rape. Allahu A'alim