It is quite strange.
Imran Khan bought the property of 500 kanals in Bani Gala with his own money.
Sometimes he says he borrowed money from his wife.
Property went on the name of his wife - how and why
She was a foreign national. Was this done to avoid tax or the source of where it came from.
She admits - it was a be-naami transaction which means the property was transferred to her name without a legal justification or she being personally entitled to it.
Now Imran Khan is wrongfully claiming it is a gift from his ex-wife.
Title of the property to his wife was illegal being be-naami which means she did not own it.
How is it possible she could gift it.
Now go to the true facts - money was spent by Imran Khan and the property after a whirl has come back to him. How is it possible that the original buyer has now become a gift-receiver.
How is it possible that at the same time, a person who has not spent a single rupee became the title-holder and then the person who spent the money (the actual buyer) did not own it at the initial stage but later on receives it as a gift at the same time remaining the actual buyer of it.
